Electing city council members by district has been a topic of discussion for the better part of a decade, so it is surprising for there to be so much uncertainty around it from both mayoral contenders. We already elect our school board by districts, so why wouldn't we use the same districts for electing our city council, two from each, or one from each with three still elected at-large? There is no need to reinvent the wheel here. All the carping about election-by-districts making members too parochial is belied by our long history of electing our school board members by district. I have hardly heard any suggestion that our school board members are "too parochial" and the reason is that the three districts are large and diverse enough to prevent that from happening. Why would we worry that it would be otherwise for our city council?